IB Security Assistant MTS MCQs

IB Security Assistant (MTS) MCQs are an important part of preparation for candidates applying for the Multi Tasking Staff (MTS) level Security Assistant post in the Intelligence Bureau (IB) under the Ministry of Home Affairs. These multiple choice questions help aspirants understand the exam pattern, improve accuracy, and build strong confidence for this competitive government recruitment exam.

The IB Security Assistant (MTS) exam generally includes objective questions from subjects such as general awareness, reasoning ability, quantitative aptitude, English language, and basic intelligence skills. In some cases, questions may also include simple current affairs and region-based or local knowledge. Regular practice of MCQs is essential for performing well in the exam.

Practicing IB Security Assistant MTS MCQs helps candidates improve speed, accuracy, and basic problem-solving ability. Since the exam is time-bound, continuous practice is necessary to handle questions efficiently and reduce mistakes. It also helps in identifying weak areas and improving them step by step.

General awareness questions include topics such as Indian history, geography, polity, science, sports, and current affairs. Reasoning questions test logical thinking, pattern recognition, and simple analytical ability. Quantitative aptitude covers basic arithmetic topics like percentage, ratio, simplification, time and work, and basic data interpretation. English section focuses on grammar, vocabulary, sentence correction, and reading comprehension.

To prepare effectively for IB Security Assistant MTS MCQs, candidates should follow a structured study plan that includes daily MCQ practice, revision, and mock tests. Solving previous year question papers is also highly useful for understanding exam patterns and frequently asked topics.

Mock tests play a key role in preparation as they simulate real exam conditions and help candidates improve time management and confidence. After each test, analyzing mistakes is important for continuous improvement and better performance in the actual exam.

Another important aspect of this exam is local language proficiency, which may vary depending on the region. Candidates should ensure they are comfortable with reading, writing, and understanding the required language for their specific posting area.

Consistency is the key to success in IB Security Assistant (MTS) exams. Candidates should dedicate fixed study hours daily for MCQ practice and revision. Breaking the syllabus into smaller sections makes preparation easier and more effective.

Understanding the syllabus is the first step in preparation. It helps candidates focus only on important topics and avoid unnecessary material. A clear preparation strategy ensures better results in less time.

In conclusion, IB Security Assistant MTS MCQs are a powerful tool for exam preparation. With regular practice, strong conceptual understanding, and proper planning, candidates can significantly improve their performance. A disciplined approach that includes mock tests, revision, and topic-wise study increases the chances of success in Intelligence Bureau recruitment exams. Staying consistent and focused is essential for achieving a stable government job in this competitive field.

Q1. Intelligence Bureau works under which ministry of India?

Correct Answer: A

The Intelligence Bureau works under the Ministry of Home Affairs. It is India internal intelligence agency and deals with internal security, intelligence collection, and related national security matters.

Q2. Who is known as the Iron Man of India?

Correct Answer: B

Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel is known as the Iron Man of India. He played a major role in integrating princely states into the Indian Union after independence.

Q3. The Indian Constitution came into force on which date?

Correct Answer: B

The Constitution of India came into force on 26 January 1950. This day is celebrated every year as Republic Day in India.

Q4. Which part of the Indian Constitution contains Fundamental Rights?

Correct Answer: C

Fundamental Rights are mentioned in Part III of the Indian Constitution. These rights protect citizens against arbitrary actions and ensure basic freedoms.

Q5. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with equality before law?

Correct Answer: A

Article 14 provides equality before law and equal protection of laws. It is one of the most important Fundamental Rights in the Constitution.

Q6. Which river is known as the Dakshin Ganga?

Correct Answer: B

The Godavari River is known as the Dakshin Ganga or Ganga of the South. It is one of the longest rivers in peninsular India.

Q7. Which is the largest state of India by area?

Correct Answer: C

Rajasthan is the largest state of India by area. It covers a large part of north-western India and includes the Thar Desert.

Q8. Which planet is known as the Red Planet?

Correct Answer: B

Mars is known as the Red Planet because of the reddish appearance caused by iron oxide present on its surface.

Q9. Which gas is essential for respiration in humans?

Correct Answer: C

Oxygen is essential for human respiration. It is used by body cells to produce energy through the process of cellular respiration.

Q10. Which blood group is known as the universal donor?

Correct Answer: D

O negative blood group is known as the universal donor for red blood cell transfusion because it lacks A, B, and Rh antigens.

Q11. The deficiency of vitamin C causes which disease?

Correct Answer: B

Deficiency of vitamin C causes scurvy. Common symptoms include bleeding gums, weakness, joint pain, and poor wound healing.

Q12. Which organ purifies blood in the human body?

Correct Answer: C

Kidneys filter waste products and excess water from blood. They help maintain fluid balance, electrolyte balance, and remove toxins through urine.

Q13. Which force keeps planets moving around the Sun?

Correct Answer: B

Gravitational force keeps planets in orbit around the Sun. The Sun attracts planets due to gravity, while their motion keeps them moving in curved paths.

Q14. Which metal is liquid at room temperature?

Correct Answer: B

Mercury is a metal that remains liquid at room temperature. It has been used in thermometers and barometers, although its use is now limited due to toxicity.

Q15. Which acid is present in lemon?

Correct Answer: B

Lemon contains citric acid. This acid gives lemon its sour taste and is commonly found in citrus fruits like oranges and limes.

Q16. Which device is used to measure electric current?

Correct Answer: B

An ammeter is used to measure electric current. It is connected in series in an electrical circuit to measure current flow.

Q17. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?

Correct Answer: C

Solar energy is a renewable source of energy because it comes from the Sun and is naturally replenished. It is clean and widely used for electricity generation.

Q18. Which soil is best suited for cotton cultivation?

Correct Answer: B

Black soil is best suited for cotton cultivation. It has good moisture retention capacity and is commonly found in the Deccan Plateau region.

Q19. Which crop is mainly grown in the Kharif season?

Correct Answer: C

Rice is mainly grown in the Kharif season. Kharif crops are generally sown with the arrival of monsoon rains and harvested after the rainy season.

Q20. Which movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi in 1942?

Correct Answer: C

The Quit India Movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi in 1942. It called for an end to British rule in India with the slogan Do or Die.

Q21. If A is coded as 1 and B is coded as 2, then Z is coded as?

Correct Answer: C

In the alphabetical position coding system, A equals 1, B equals 2, and so on. Therefore, Z is the 26th letter of the English alphabet.

Q22. Find the missing number in the series: 2, 4, 8, 16, ?

Correct Answer: D

The given series doubles each time. 2 becomes 4, 4 becomes 8, 8 becomes 16, and 16 multiplied by 2 gives 32.

Q23. Find the missing number in the series: 3, 6, 11, 18, ?

Correct Answer: B

The differences are 3, 5, and 7. The next difference is 9. Therefore, 18 plus 9 equals 27.

Q24. If CAT is written as DBU, then DOG will be written as?

Correct Answer: A

Each letter is shifted one position forward in the alphabet. C becomes D, A becomes B, T becomes U. Similarly, DOG becomes EPH.

Q25. Which number is the odd one out: 9, 16, 25, 36, 49, 63?

Correct Answer: D

9, 16, 25, 36, and 49 are perfect squares. 63 is not a perfect square, so it is the odd one out.

Q26. A person faces north and turns right. Which direction is he facing now?

Correct Answer: A

When a person facing north turns right, he faces east. Direction questions require careful tracking of left and right turns.

Q27. What is 25 percent of 200?

Correct Answer: C

25 percent means one-fourth. One-fourth of 200 is 50. Therefore, 25 percent of 200 equals 50.

Q28. If the cost price is 500 and profit is 20 percent, what is the selling price?

Correct Answer: C

Profit is 20 percent of 500, which is 100. Selling price equals cost price plus profit, so 500 plus 100 equals 600.

Q29. The average of 10, 20, 30 and 40 is?

Correct Answer: B

Average is calculated by dividing the sum of values by the number of values. The sum is 100 and 100 divided by 4 equals 25.

Q30. A train covers 120 km in 2 hours. What is its speed?

Correct Answer: C

Speed equals distance divided by time. The train covers 120 km in 2 hours, so its speed is 120 divided by 2 equals 60 km per hour.

Q31. The simple interest on 1000 at 10 percent per annum for 2 years is?

Correct Answer: C

Simple interest is calculated as principal multiplied by rate multiplied by time divided by 100. Here, 1000 x 10 x 2 divided by 100 equals 200.

Q32. If 12 men can complete a work in 10 days, how many man-days are required?

Correct Answer: C

Man-days are calculated by multiplying the number of men by the number of days. Therefore, 12 multiplied by 10 equals 120 man-days.

Q33. Choose the correctly spelt word.

Correct Answer: C

The correct spelling is Accommodate. It contains double c and double m, which is a common spelling point in English exams.

Q34. Choose the antonym of Brave.

Correct Answer: C

The antonym of brave is cowardly. Brave means showing courage, while cowardly means lacking courage or being fearful.

Q35. Choose the synonym of Rapid.

Correct Answer: B

Rapid means fast or quick. Therefore, fast is the correct synonym of rapid.

Q36. Fill in the blank: He is good ____ mathematics.

Correct Answer: B

The correct phrase is good at. Therefore, the sentence should be: He is good at mathematics.

Q37. Identify the noun in the sentence: Honesty is the best policy.

Correct Answer: A

Honesty is a noun because it names a quality. Abstract nouns name ideas, qualities, or feelings that cannot be touched physically.

Q38. Which one is a preposition?

Correct Answer: B

Under is a preposition. Prepositions show relation between a noun or pronoun and another word in a sentence.

Q39. Which of the following is an example of a public place security measure?

Correct Answer: C

Checking identity cards is a basic public place security measure. It helps control access and improves safety in offices, institutions, and restricted areas.

Q40. What should be done first after noticing an unattended suspicious bag in a public area?

Correct Answer: C

An unattended suspicious bag should not be touched or moved. The correct action is to inform security staff or police immediately and keep people away from the area.

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